2023 New General questions

The questions for the General Class test will change on July 1, 2023. If you studied for the test using my book, or another study guide, you shouldn’t have any problems passing the test. Most of the questions stayed the same, or had only minor changes in wording.

The questions shown on this page are brand new, but in most cases, if you learned the material for the old test, you should be able to answer these questions easily.

A new version of the study guide will be published very soon. But in the meantime, these questions will help you pass the test if take it on or after July 1, 2023.

In addition, some questions have changed regarding particular frequencies where you may operate. So do not memorize answers to particular questions. Instead, you should memorize all of the band limits for general class licensees. You can find them at this link.

Also, some of the math questions have changed. As long as you know the formulas, you’ll be fine. But if you memorized “150 ohms,” that won’t help.

The new questions are listed below. The correct answer is given in parentheses after the question number.

G2E08 (D)

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

G3A08 (D)

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation

B. Degrade ground wave propagation

C. Improve ground wave propagation

D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

G4A09 (C)

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

A. To prevent key clicks on CW

B. To prevent transient overmodulation

C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

G4B12 (B)

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings

C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

D. All these choices are correct

G6B04 (C)

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

A. 50 MHz

B. 500 MHz

C. 4 GHz

D. 40 GHz

G7B04 (A)

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

A. 100%

B. More than 50% but less than 100%

C. 50%

D. Less than 50%

G7C02 (D)

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

A. Frequency modulated RF

B. Audio with equalized frequency response

C. Audio extracted from the modulation signal

D. Double-sideband modulated RF

G7C03 (B)

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

A. To minimize transmitter power output

B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

C. To reduce power supply ripple

D. To minimize radiation resistance

G7C04 (D)

How is a product detector used?

A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

C. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

G7C06 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

B. Fewer digital components are required

C. Mixing products are greatly reduced

D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

G7C07 (A)

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

A. Insertion loss

B. Return loss

C. Q

D. Ultimate rejection

G7C12 (C)

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

A. Notch frequency

B. Neper frequency

C. Cutoff frequency

D. Rolloff frequency

G7C13 (D)

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

A. Notch depth

B. Rolloff

C. Insertion loss

D. Ultimate rejection

G7C14 (A)

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

A. Upper and lower half-power

B. Cutoff and rolloff

C. Pole and zero

D. Image and harmonic

G8A06 (D)

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

A. It is sideband sensitive

B. Its encoding provides error correction

C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

D. All these choices are correct

G8A12 (D)

What is QPSK modulation?

A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

G8A13 (C)

What is a link budget?

A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses

C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

G8A14 (B)

What is link margin?

A. The opposite of fade margin

B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

G8C05 (A)

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A. Request retransmission of the packet

B. Packet was received without error

C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions

D. Entire file received correctly

G8C06 (B)

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

A. The checksum overflows

B. The connection is dropped

C. Packets will be routed incorrectly

D. Encoding reverts to the default character set

G9C11 (A)

What is a beta or hairpin match?

A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

G9D01 (A)

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G9D02 (D)

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

A. Very low

B. Approximately 50 ohms

C. Approximately 300 ohms

D. Very high

G9D03 (C)

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

A. Broadside to the plane of the halo

B. Opposite the feed point

C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

D. On the same side as the feed point

G9D08 (B)

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

A. By varying its body capacitance

B. By varying the base loading inductance

C. By extending and retracting the whip

D. By deploying a capacitance hat

G9D10 (B)

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

A. In the plane of the loop

B. Broadside to the loop

C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop

D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

G0A12 (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)]

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

G0B04 (B)

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

A. As close to the station equipment as possible

B. Outside the building

C. Next to the closest power pole

D. Parallel to the water supply line

G0B13 (A)

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

A. Where the feed lines enter the building

B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point

C. In series with each ground lead

D. At the closest power pole ground electrode

G8C16 (D)

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

A. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

B. FT8, FT4, and FST4

C. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

---------(C)

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

B. The signal is S3 (weak signals)

C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

D. The signal is 3 dB over S9

G2B11 (C) [97.407(d)(4)]

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

A. No more than 1 hour per month

B. No more than 2 hours per month

C. No more than 1 hour per week

D. No more than 2 hours per week

G2D01 (A)

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G2D02 (D)

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

B. To provide emergency and public safety communications

C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

G2D03 (B)

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

D. All these choices are correct

G2E12 (D)

Which of the following describes Winlink?

A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

B. A form of Packet Radio

C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation

D. All of the above

G2E13 (B)

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

A. Terminal Node Controller

B. Gateway

C. RJ-45

D. Printer/Server

G2E02 (B)

What is VARA?

A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

B. A digital protocol used with Winlink

C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

D.A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

G9B01 (B)

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength

B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current

C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation

D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

G9B03 (D)

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

A. Bi-directional in azimuth

B. Isotropic

C. Hemispherical

D. Omnidirectional in azimuth

G1D05 (A) [97.7]

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

A. A US operator/primary station license

B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

G1D12 (C) [97.507]

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

C. Only those of the remote station’s country

D. Only those of the FCC

G2B10 (B)

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

C. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

D. All these choices are correct

G2D11 (A)

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions

B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs

C. To follow standard radiogram structure

D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

G3C02 (A)

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

G4D06 (A)

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

A. 6 dB

B. 12 dB

C. 15 dB

D. 18 dB

G4E08 (A)

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

A. Series-parallel

B. Shunt

C. Bypass

D. Full-wave bridge

G4E11 (D)

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

C. A series resistor must be in place

D. The solar panel must have a charge controller

G5A07 (D)

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

A. Conductance

B. Susceptance

C. Reluctance

D. Admittance

G5A11 (B)

What letter is used to represent reactance?

A. Z

B. X

C. B

D. Y

G5A12 (D)

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

A. Current and voltage are equal

B. Resistance is cancelled

C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

G5A01 (C)

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high

B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low

D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

G1E12 (A) [97.115]

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

B. Under no circumstances except for emergencies

C. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

D. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

G2E04 (D)

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

A. Always call on the station’s frequency

B. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

G2E15 (C)

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

D. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

G8C09 (B)

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

A. Having more nodes increases signal strengths

B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

C. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

G2E11 (C)

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

B. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

G9D12 (A)

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

A. Inverted V

B. Inverted L

C. Sloper

D. Lazy H

----- (D)

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

A. Input amplifier gain

B. Demodulator stage bandwidth

C. Input amplifier noise figure

D. All these choices are correct

G7C11 (D)

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

A. Filtering

B. Detection

C. Modulation

D. All these choices are correct